I still try to understand the basic principles of EM.
I understand that to some degree my myopia is caused by ciliary muscle spasm (pseudo myopia) and to some extent lens-induced myopia (prolonged eye ball). I understand that we do AF to teach the ciliary muscle to relax again on its own and this stimulus (or the myopic defocus) tells the brain to shorten the eye ball again.
Now, let’s imagine the following scenario:
My laptop is 80cm away and my TV is 3 meters away.
I use my Differentials on the laptop and my Normalized for TV.
In both cases I see at the EoB, i.e. I have the same blur challenge in both scenarios!
Without glasses my EoB starts at 40cm, so that is the maximum my ciliary muscle can relax on its own.
Why is it “better” to watch TV with my Normalized than to sit at a PC with my Differentials? I mean, in both cases I see at the EoB. That means that my ciliary muscle is already maximally relaxed in both cases, it cannot relax more because of the ciliary muscle spasm! If I do AF, my ciliary muscle needs to relax just as much in both cases (same stimulus?) because it is the SAME BLUR CHALLENGE or not?
Of course it is another story if someone doesn’t need glasses at all. Then 3 meters is definitely better than 80cm because the ciliary muscle does all the work here, it is more relaxed at 3 Meter than at 80cm. But in my case, my ciliary muscle can only relax until 40cm on its own, from then on glasses do all the work.
I really struggle to understand this, it just does not make sense for me. Hope someone has an answer for me