I got a new “prescription” for far vision from the optometrist last week and I’m a little stumped. Here’s the Rx history for last three years –
cyl: +0.50|+0.25 axes: 109|098
cyl: No correction (did it go away?)
[Vert prism .75 down]
2020 (single vision, just measured by optometrist last week)
cyl: +0.50|+0.50 axes: 152|008
[Vert prism 1.0 down]
First questions. I’m sure this May 2020 Rx is going to be, like the previous ones, too strong. Because for 2 years now I have been using my “computer glasses” -2.50|-2.50 exclusively, including for far vision, including for driving, and I can see well enough (20/30 on 6 m Snellen)These “computer glasses” have no astigmatism or prism correction – so question is, is this disparity due to the unnatural environment of optometrist’s testing? Am I so “blur adapted” that I don’t even know I need more correction for far vision and astigmatism? How can there be so much difference between what he measures and what I actually use on my face to see? Is it merely because he’s correcting to 20/20?
Second questions. Is this just a thing with astigmatism, that it can change so much? Can I assume the correction for 2020 is correct? Is +0.50 low enough to just skip it? Just looking for your thoughts. If it had stayed the same all three years, I would not even question it. But when it seems to come and go …
Looking for any insight, opinions, corrections to my lack of knowledge, before I order any norm/far glasses. For now I’ll just keep using “computer glasses” as is, because they are giving me a bit of challenge for the way-out-there fine detail. Not ideal, but that’s my starting point.
I can still order some diff/close glasses based on dropping some sph from the -2.50|-2.50 “computer glasses” (prob -2.00|-2.00 based on my cm ruler) And strangely, the optometrist says I don’t “need” any glasses for close vision. Yes I do!
Apologies in advance for too long post or for inappropriate or dunder-headed questions!